Free practice quiz
WHNP-BC Prep Course (WHNP): free quiz
10 questions from the program. See your score right away, then unlock the explanation of every answer.
- Question 1 of 10
A 32-year-old patient presents for an annual well-woman visit with no acute symptoms. Vital signs are BP 118/72 mm Hg, pulse 76/min. LMP was 3 weeks ago; she uses condoms and reports her last cervical cancer screening was 4 years ago. PHQ-2 is negative. During history, she says her partner “sometimes blocks the doorway and checks my phone,” but denies injury. As the women’s health nurse practitioner, which action has highest priority?
D is correct. Safety is the priority: controlling behavior may indicate intimate partner violence, so assess privately for danger, coercion, and safe resources. B is appropriate prevention counseling but is lower priority than possible safety risk. C is indicated because screening is overdue, but it can follow immediate safety assessment. A is useful contraceptive counseling, yet it does not address the potential threat first. Using the nursing process, assess and intervene for safety before routine prevention tasks.
- Question 2 of 10
In a women’s health clinic, a 30-year-old patient with a cervix presents for a wellness visit. Assessment: no immunocompromising condition, no DES exposure, no history of CIN 2 or higher, not pregnant, sexually active with one partner, and asymptomatic. The chart shows the only prior cervical cytology was normal at age 21. As the WHNP, which cervical cancer screening action is the priority today?
Priority is preventive safety. A is appropriate health promotion, but vaccination counseling does not replace overdue screening. C is incorrect: a pelvic exam does not screen for cervical precancer, and asymptomatic status does not remove age-based screening need. D is correct: at age 30–65 with a cervix and average risk, primary hrHPV testing every 5 years, cotesting every 5 years, or cytology every 3 years are acceptable; results guide follow-up. B is tempting because she is overdue, but colposcopy is for abnormal or risk-based results, not routine catch-up screening.
- Question 3 of 10
A 28-year-old patient is seen for a preventive visit and states she hopes to become pregnant in the next 2 months. Assessment: urine pregnancy test is negative, no immunocompromising condition, no vaccine records, and uncertain history of rubella or varicella infection. She asks what vaccines can be updated safely before conception. What is the best WHNP action today?
A: Incorrect; deferring all vaccines misses preventive care before pregnancy. D: Incorrect; influenza vaccination is appropriate when indicated, but it does not address live-vaccine susceptibility before conception. C: Correct; the nursing priority is safety-focused assessment of pregnancy status and immunity, then timely immunization when nonpregnant. Live attenuated MMR and varicella vaccines are contraindicated during pregnancy, so susceptible patients should receive them before conception and avoid pregnancy for 4 weeks. B: Incorrect; MMR may be appropriate if susceptible and nonpregnant, but counseling that no waiting interval is needed is unsafe.
- Question 4 of 10
A 24-year-old patient presents for concern about increased vaginal discharge. She reports clear, stretchy mucus for 2 days near midcycle, no odor, itching, pelvic pain, dysuria, or new partner. Pelvic exam shows normal vulva, vagina, and cervix without erythema. Vaginal pH is 4.0, whiff test is negative, and saline/KOH microscopy shows no clue cells, trichomonads, or yeast. As the women’s health NP, which action is the priority?
D: Repeat testing is a real follow-up action but is lower priority when assessment is normal. B: Treatment is tempting, but safety and nursing process require data supporting infection; pH and microscopy do not. A: Correct. Normal acidic pH, negative whiff, absent inflammation, and midcycle clear mucus support physiologic discharge; teach and give return precautions. C: Referral is appropriate for red flags, persistent unexplained findings, or malignancy concern, which are absent.
Assess symptoms and pH/microscopy first; intervene with education; delegate routine specimen transport only; escalate for pelvic pain, fever, bleeding, cervical lesion, pregnancy concern, or suspected STI complications. - Question 5 of 10
A 46-year-old patient reports 3 months of unpredictable heavy uterine bleeding, now soaking 1 pad per hour with dizziness. Assessment: pale, BP 92/58 mm Hg, HR 112/min, urine pregnancy test negative, no fever. She has obesity and has not had gynecologic care in 8 years. As the WHNP in an outpatient clinic, which action is the priority?
A: Endometrial evaluation is appropriate because age over 45 and obesity increase cancer risk, but circulation comes first. D: Bleeding tracking is useful for stable AUB, but hypotension, tachycardia, pallor, and dizziness indicate possible hemodynamic compromise. B: Correct. Using ABCs/circulation and safety priority, urgent escalation is needed for acute heavy bleeding with unstable vital signs; the WHNP should stabilize within outpatient capability and arrange emergency evaluation. C: Cervical and infection testing may be part of later assessment, but it delays urgent care.
- Question 6 of 10
A 32-year-old patient presents to the women’s health clinic with 2 weeks of spontaneous, unilateral bloody nipple discharge from one duct. She is not pregnant or lactating. Breast exam shows no palpable mass, erythema, or fever. A screening mammogram 8 months ago was normal. Which action is the priority?
D is correct. Nursing-process priority is safety: spontaneous unilateral bloody single-duct discharge is pathologic until evaluated, even with recent normal screening. Diagnostic mammography/tomosynthesis and targeted ultrasound are appropriate, with timely referral. C is unsafe because screening does not replace symptom-directed workup. B may fit bilateral milky discharge but delays evaluation of bloody focal discharge. A is reasonable for physiologic provoked discharge, but watchful waiting is wrong priority when malignancy or intraductal disease is possible.
- Question 7 of 10
A 17-year-old presents to an outpatient women’s health clinic requesting STI screening. A parent is in the waiting room. The patient says, “I’m queer,” reports oral and vaginal sex with partners of more than one gender, uses condoms “sometimes,” denies coercion, and has no pelvic pain, discharge, or fever. As the WHNP, what is the priority next action to guide testing and counseling?
B is correct. The priority is assessment: protect confidentiality, clarify its limits, and use anatomy- and practice-based questions to guide site-specific STI testing, pregnancy prevention counseling, and safety planning. C is a real screening action but is premature and incomplete; oral or rectal exposure may require extragenital testing. A is respectful only if patient-led, but identity labels should not replace behavior-based risk assessment. D may support family communication later if the patient agrees, but it violates adolescent confidentiality and may reduce disclosure. Nursing priority: assess privately first, intervene with tailored testing/counseling, and escalate for coercion, assault, suicidality, or acute symptoms.
- Question 8 of 10
A 22-year-old patient presents to a women’s health clinic with 3 days of mucopurulent cervical discharge and postcoital spotting. Pelvic exam shows a friable cervix; temperature is 98.6°F, abdomen is nontender, and there is no cervical motion or adnexal tenderness. Last menstrual period was 5 weeks ago, and condom use is inconsistent. Which nursing action is the priority?
D is correct. Using the nursing process, assess and test before final management: NAAT is preferred for chlamydia/gonorrhea, and pregnancy status changes medication safety and follow-up. C is appropriate but is the wrong priority before testing and treatment planning. A is preventive care, but the acute cervicitis findings require STI evaluation first. B delays care and increases risk of transmission and complications. Assess pregnancy status and STI risk, intervene with NAAT-based testing and timely treatment coordination, delegate routine specimen transport only, and escalate for pelvic pain, fever, or suspected PID.
- Question 9 of 10
A 16-year-old patient presents to a community women’s health clinic requesting STI screening. Vital signs are normal, and she denies pelvic pain, fever, or assault. Her parent is in the waiting room. The patient says, “Please do not tell my parent anything.” As the WHNP begins the visit, which action is the priority?
C: Parent involvement can support care, but privacy is the priority before sensitive screening. B: Testing is appropriate, but assessment and confidentiality boundaries come first. A: Correct. Using the nursing process, first establish a private, safe setting; explain confidentiality, mandatory reporting limits, and jurisdiction-specific consent rules; then assess pregnancy concern, coercion, abuse, and STI risk. D: Policy matters, but delaying care may reduce access and misses immediate counseling needs. Escalate or report only when safety, abuse, coercion, or legal reporting criteria are identified.
- Question 10 of 10
A 27-year-old G0 patient in a women’s health clinic wants to avoid pregnancy for 3–5 years. Assessment: BP 118/72 mm Hg, BMI 24, migraines with aura, no pelvic pain, one new partner, and she often forgets daily pills. Pregnancy test is negative. She asks for the “most effective option that does not require remembering something every day.” Which counseling action is best?
D: Incorrect; estrogen-containing methods are lower priority because migraine with aura is a safety contraindication. C: Correct; using the nursing process, the priority is to match pregnancy goals, adherence barriers, and contraindications. LARC methods have highest typical-use effectiveness and require minimal user action; counseling must include bleeding changes and STI protection. B: Incorrect; fertility awareness is valid but has greater typical-use failure and requires high adherence. A: Incorrect; DMPA is effective but requires timely repeat visits and has counseling issues such as irregular bleeding and delayed return to fertility, so it is not the best fit.
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